Changes In Sovreignty

[Dodger 0]

If a plot of land changes sovreignty by force, when does the old sovreign power have a "legitimate" complaint. There are thousands, maybe tens of thousands, of cases where land has changed hands. Texas has been under six flags and there were owners before that. Places in Europe have changed hands dozens of times. What are YOUR rules for determining the fair owner? Now I guess if a nation sells land like the French did Louisiana, and the sale was not under duress we'd eliminate the seller from any claim. But how many of these sales were not under duress? Was the sale of Manhattan a fair sale? Do you have any statute of limitations? If you got your land taken away in a battle in 1066 do you have a legitimate claim? I read about how the rules indicate some group or another has a claim to a plot of land but I've never read the rules. My personal opinion is that the rules vary by the "court". And there is no wourld court. The rules of the US court are made by the US Government. So, if you're trying to decide who is the fair owner of Texas, it depends on where you take your case. If you think Texas belongs to Mexico you need to find a "court" which says that. And of course the verdict will be worthless. Using this thinking, I fail to see the relevance of debating who is the rightful owner of Israel without understanding what "court" is hearing the case. And if you tell me what court is hearing the case I know how they'll rule before you argue the case. So what's the point? Who cares what ethnic group was doing what in 1910? Or 1947?